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 Real analysis experts needed!!
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Posted on 12-17-05 3:49 PM     Reply [Subscribe]
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I am in a desperate need of some suggestions/ help in this problem. Any ideas would be much appreciated.

Show that the set A = [0, ‡] does not have the Heine-Borel property, thus it is not a compact set in R1. . Use only the definition of H-B property.

Thanks!
 
Posted on 12-17-05 3:52 PM     Reply [Subscribe]
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In the above post, It should be from [ 0, infinity). It did not show up clearly!!

Thanks!
 
Posted on 12-17-05 3:54 PM     Reply [Subscribe]
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I'm also looking for a solution Jyostana

How do I correct or minimize Barrel Distortion when using wider end of zooms ?
 
Posted on 12-18-05 2:28 PM     Reply [Subscribe]
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Hi Jyotsna:

I read about your problem yesterday, but since I wasn't a member of this group, I had to apply for it, and wait for a day to write a reply. So, even if it is late, here is my suggestion.

==

Take an open covering of set (0,infinity) , in this case A=countable union of (n-epsilon,n+1+epsilon), where those epsilons make sure that you got the whole damn thing,[0,infinity) covered. Now, I hope you know what I meant by countable union, this is n=0 to infinity, just in case. In this case, as you can see [0,infinity) is in A.Now, suppose n doesn't go to infinity but some finite number N. Can you say the same thing: that this ugly sucker (i.e. [0,infinity) set) also belongs to A? No. Which means there is no finite subcovering of this open covering.

==

I hope it helps. I am trying to be chivalrous, by helping out a girl in need. If somehow you turn out to be a boy, then, it will be quite a disappointment for me. Anyway:-)
 


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